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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
RSPAN has been configured on a Cisco Catalyst switch; however, traffic is not being replicated to the remote switch. Which type of misconfiguration is a cause?
A. The RSPAN designated VLAN is missing the remote span command.
B. The local and remote RSPAN switches are configured using different session IDs.
C. The local RSPAN switch is replicating only Rx traffic to the remote switch.
D. The local switch is overloaded with the amount of sourced traffic that must be replicated to the remote switch.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? 300-115 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. The destination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which command globally enables AAA on a device?
A. aaa new-model
B. aaa authentication
C. aaa authorization
D. aaa accounting
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?
300-115 dumps
A. That interfaces Fa0/13 andFa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. That interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplexmismatch with another switch
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Enablement of which feature puts the port into err-disabled state when the port has PortFast enabled and it receives BPDUs?
A. BPDU filtering
B. BackboneFast
C. EtherChannel
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. 300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly eventhough the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Layer 2 protocol participation of ports involved m a SPAN session is true?
A. Neither a SPAN source nor SPAN destination participates m any Layer 2 protocols.
B. A SPAN source does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
C. A SPAN destination does not participate n any Layer 2 protocols
D. Both SPAN source and SPAN destination participate in any Layer 2 protocols
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A Cisco Catalyst switch that is prone to reboots continues to rebuild the DHCP snooping database. What is the solution to avoid the snooping database from being rebuilt after everydevice reboot?
A. A DHCP snooping database agent should be configured.
B. Enable DHCP snooping for all VLANs that are associated with the switch.
C. Disable Option 82 for DHCP data insertion.
D. Use IP Source Guard to protect the DHCP binding table entries from being lost upon rebooting.
E. Apply ip dhcp snooping trust on all interfaces with dynamic addresses.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions
Exam Code: 300-209
Total Questions: 271 Q&As
300-209 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which statement describes a prerequisite for single-sign-on Netegrity Cookie Support in an IOC SSL VPN?
A. The Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client must be installed in flash.
B. A SiteMinder plug-in must be installed on the Cisco SSL VPN gateway.
C. A Cisco plug-in must be installed on a SiteMinder server.
D. The Cisco Secure Desktop software package must be installed in flash.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
As network consultant, you are asked to suggest a VPN technology that can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites. Which technology should you recommend?
A. DMVPN
B. FlexVPN
C. GET VPN
D. SSL VPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
As network security architect, you must implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity.
Which technology should you use?
A. IPsec DVTI
B. FlexVPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec SVTI
E. GET VPN
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. 300-209 dumps
Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?
A. HTTPS
B. NetBIOS
C. CIFS
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which configuration is used to build a tunnel between a Cisco ASA and ISR?
A. crypto map
B. DMVPN
C. GET VPN
D. GRE with IPsec
E. GRE without IPsec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps
The IKEv2 tunnel between Router1 and Router2 is failing during session establishment. Which action will allow the session to establish correctly?
A. The address command on Router2 must be narrowed down to a /32 mask.
B. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be switched.
C. The pre-shared key must be altered to use only lowercase letters.
D. The local and remote keys on Router2 must be the same.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which algorithm provides both encryption and authentication for data plane communication?
A. SHA-96
B. SHA-384
C. 3DES
D. AES-256
E. AES-GCM
F. RC4
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
The following configuration steps have been completeD.
• WebVPN was enabled on the ASA outside interface.
• SSL VPN client software was loaded to the ASA.
• A DHCP scope was configured and applied to a WebVPN Tunnel Group.
What additional step is required if the client software fails to load when connecting to the ASA SSL page?
A. The SSL client must be loaded to the client by an ASA administrator
B. The SSL client must be downloaded to the client via FTP
C. The SSL VPN client must be enabled on the ASA after loading
D. The SSL client must be enabled on the client machine before loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which cryptographic algorithms are a part of the Cisco NGE suite?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-CBC-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-GCM-256
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, 300-209 dumps which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)
A. Client’s public IP address
B. Client’s operating system
C. Client’s default gateway IP address
D. Client’s username
E. ASA’s public IP address
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco adaptive security appliance command can be used to view the IPsec PSK of a tunnel group in cleartext?
A. more system:running-config
B. show running-config crypto
C. show running-config tunnel-group
D. show running-config tunnel-group-map
E. clear config tunnel-group
F. show ipsec policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two statements describe effects of the DoNothing option within the untrusted network policy on aCisco AnyConnect profile? (Choose two.)
A. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of an untrusted network.
B. The client initiates a VPN connection upon detection of a trusted network.
C. The always-on feature is enabled.
D. The always-on feature is disabled.
E. The client does not automatically initiate any VPN connection.
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
You have configured R1 and R2 as shown, but the routers are unable to establish a site-to- site VPN tunnel. What action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Edit the crypto keys on R1 and R2 to match.
B. Edit the ISAKMP policy sequence numbers on R1 and R2 to match.
C. Set a valid value for the crypto key lifetime on each router.
D. Edit the crypto isakmp key command on each router with the address value of its own interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which accounting notices are used to send a failed authentication attempt record to a AAA server? (Choose two.)
A. start-stop
B. stop-record
C. stop-only
D. stop
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command?
A. It merges authentication and encryption methods to protect traffic that matches an ACL.
B. It configures the network to use a different transform set between peers.
C. It configures encryption for MD5 HMAC.
D. It configures authentication as AES 256.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning
B. NAT
C. NAT traversal
D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has been violated?
A. confidentiality
B. availability
C. access
D. control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
B. Router# show ip eigrp topology
C. Router#show ip eigrp interfaces
D. Router#show ip eigrp neighbors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. a backup route, stored in the routing table
B. a primary route, stored in the routing table
C. a backup route, stored in the topology table
D. a primary route, stored in the topology table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
200-105 dumps Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Assume that all of the router interfaces are operational and configured correctly. How will router R2 be affected by the configuration of R1 that is shown in the exhibit?
A. Router R2 will not form a neighbor relationship with R1.
B. Router R2 will obtain a full routing table, including a default route, from R1.
C. R2 will obtain OSPF updates from R1, but will not obtain a default route from R1.
D. R2 will not have a route for the directly connected serial network, but all other directly connected networks will be present, as well as the two Ethernet networks connected to R1.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
A packet with a source IP address of 192.168.2.4 and a destination IP address of 10.1.1.4 arrives at the AcmeB router. What action does the router take?
A. forwards the received packet out the Serial0/0 interface
B. forwards a packet containing an EIGRP advertisement out the Serial0/1 interface
C. forwards a packet containing an ICMP message out the FastEthemet0/0 interface
D. forwards a packet containing an ARP request out the FastEthemet0/1 interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, 200-105 dumps which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. 200-105 dumps Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 11
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: VMware
Certifications: VCP6-DCV
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 6 – Data Center Virtualization
Exam Code: 2V0-621
Total Questions: 242 Q&As
2V0-621 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator is using Auto Deploy to create several ESXi 6.x hosts that will be connected to a vSphere Distributed Switch. Afer the hosts are deployed, the administrator noaces that LACP packets are not being sent between them.
Which statement best describes why this issue is occuring?
A. LACP is not enabled on the vCenter Server.
B. The LACP support setngs do not exist in the host profle.
C. The LACP installaaon bundle is not included in the image profle.
D. LACP has not been confgured on the Auto Deploy server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator noaces that 8 out of 10 virtual machines have memory ballooning and swapping.
However, virtual machine 9 is not ballooning or swapping and virtual machine 10 is not ballooning but is swapping. Which two statements explain the behavior of virtual machine 9 and virtual machine 10? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machine 9 has a 100% memory reservaaon.
B. Virtual machine 10 has a memory limit confgured.
C. Virtual machine 9 has memory shares set to HIGH.
D. Virtual machine 10 does not have VMware Tools enabled or installed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which two scenarios could cause Storage DRS to be disabled on a Virtual Disk (VMDK)? 2V0-621 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The VMDK is an independent disk.
B. The virtual machine has vSphere Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The VMDK is hosted on NFS storage.
D. The virtual machine has a CD-ROM/ISO image connected.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which three troubleshooang acaons should an administrator take to address slow performance when deploying a virtual machine template? (Choose three.)
A. Increase network throughput by adding addiaonal uplinks to the vSwitch.
B. Change the desanaaon datastore or volume for the virtual machine template.
C. Confgure a Provisioning Trafc vmkernel port to perform the deployment operaaon.
D. Reduce the size of the virtual machine template’s virtual disk.
E. Deploy the virtual machine template to the cluster and allow Distributed Resource Scheduler to register the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621 dumps
A Storage Policy for a Virtual SAN is set to the default policy, as shown in the Exhibit. Which change would reduce the storage consumpaon by one third?
A. Number of failures to tolerate = 1
B. Number of disk stripes per object = 2
C. Number of failures to tolerate = 3
D. Number of disk stripes per object = 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A virtual machine is exhibiang these symptoms:
Memory usage is constantly high (94% or greater) or constantly low (24% or less). 2V0-621 dumps
Free memory is consistently 6% or less and swapping frequently occurs Which three soluaons could correct this problem? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that VMware Tools is installed on each virtual machine.
B. Decrease the memory reservaaon setng, if higher than acave memory.
C. Add physical memory to the host.
D. Disable the balloon driver in each virtual machine.
E. Create a memory limit for each virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
The command esxcli network vm list displays four virtual machines connected to the Producaon vSwitch.
Within the vSphere Web Client, fve virtual machines are seen.
What explains this behavior?
A. The ffh virtual machine is currently powered of.
B. The ffh virtual machine has two vnics.
C. The ffh virtual machine has an invalid IP address.
D. The ffh virtual machine has an invalid MAC address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621 dumps
Review the Exhibit. An administrator has confgured permissions for a group called VMGroup and a user named VMUser. A new Role has been created called PowerVM. The group and role have these charecterisacs:
PowerVM role can power on VMs
VMGroup granted PowerVM role on VMFolder
VMUser is a member of VMGroup
VMUser granted No Access on VMFolder
Based on the exhibit, which statement best explains why VMUser is denied access to the VMFolder?
A. The VMUser permission overrides the VMGroup permission.
B. The No Access role overrides the PowerVM role.
C. The VMGroup permission overrides the VMUser permission.
D. The PowerVM role overrides the No Access role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An administrator has a virtual machine (VM) that uses a shared USB device. Which opaon will allow the VM to ualize vMoaon while retaining the maximum possible funcaonality?
A. Disable the USB device from the VM.
B. Confgure the VM to support vMoaon while the device is connected.
C. Enable migraaon support for the individual USB device.
D. Remove the device from the VM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
When atempang to place a datastore in Maintenance Mode, the task remains at 1%.
What are two potenaal causes for this? 2V0-621 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Storage DRS is disabled on one or more virtual machine(s) disk(s).
B. Storage DRS rules prevent migraaon recommendaaons for the disk.
C. Storage DRS datastores have insufcient space to accommodate failover.
D. Storage DRS provisioning network has been limited with I/O control policies.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
A vSphere Web Client task fails while creaang a VMFS datastore on a disk with these characterisacs:
The disk was formated with an Master Boot Record (MBR) paraaon table The disk was not erased
The disk is visible in the vSphere Web Client
What acaon needs to be performed to resolve the issue?
A. Delete the paraaons manually with partedUal.
B. Create a VMFS3 fle system frst, then upgrade it.
C. Create a VMFS5 fle system with the command esxcli storage flesystem add.
D. Delete the data with the vmkfstools command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator wants to prevent a priority virtual machine that resides in a vSphere DRS cluster from migraang to other hosts in the cluster.
What confguraaon step will accomplish this without afecang other virtual machines?
A. Set VM Overrides to Paraally Automated.
B. Set VM Overrides to Manual.
C. Confgure a VM/Host Rule with the setng Must run on hosts in group.
D. Confgure a VM/Host Rule with the setng Should run on hosts in group.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Network+
Exam Name: Network + Certification Exam
Exam Code: N10-005
Total Questions: 828 Q&As
N10-005 dumps
QUESTION 1
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through single-mode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope? N10-005 dumps
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B
N10-005 dumps
QUESTION 7
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A user’s laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. N10-005 dumps Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Specialist: Microsoft Azure
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Exam Code: 70-534
Total Questions: 249 Q&As
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that users do not need to re-enter their passwords after they authenticate to cloud applications for the first time.
What should you do?
A. Enable Microsoft Account authentication.
B. Set up a virtual private network (VPN) connection between the VanArsdel premises and Azure datacenter. Set up a Windows Active Directory domain controller in Azure VM. Implement Integrated Windows authentication.
C. Deploy ExpressRoute.
D. Configure Azure Active Directory Sync to use single sign-on (SSO).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementation of data storage for the contractor information app.
What should you? 70-534 dumps
A. Create a storage account and implement multiple data partitions.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entity Group transactions.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entity Group transactions.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multiple data partitions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You need to assign permissions for the Virtual Machine workloads that you migrate to Azure.
The solution must use the principal of least privileges.
What should you do?
A. Create all VMs in the cloud service named Groupl and then connect to the Azure subscription. Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
New-AzureRoleAssignment -Mail [email protected] -RoleDefinitionName Contributor – ResoureeGroupName group1
B. In the Azure portal, select an individual virtual machine and add an owner.
C. In the Azure portal, assign read permission to the user at the subscription level.
D. Create each VM in a separate cloud service and then connect to the Azure subscription. Run the following Windows PowerShell command:
Get-AzureVM | New-AzureRoleAssignment -Mail [email protected] -RoleDefinitionName Contributor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are designing a plan to deploy a new application to Azure. The solution must provide a single sign-on experience for users.
You need to recommend an authentication type.
Which authentication type should you recommend?
A. SAML credential tokens
B. Azure managed access keys
C. Windows Authentication
D. MS-CHAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM) instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend data storage mechanisms for the solution.
What should you recommend? 70-534 dumps To answer, drag the appropriate data storage mechanism to the correct information type. Each data storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-534 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-534 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor information app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notification Hub
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to prepare the implementaton of data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution that allows partners to authenticate.
Which solution should you recommend? 70-534 dumps
A. Configure the federation provider to trust social identity providers.
B. Configure the federation provider to use the Azure Access Control service.
C. Create a new directory in Azure Active Directory and create a user account for the partner.
D. Create an account on the VanArsdel domain for the partner and send an email message that contains the password to the partner.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Exam Code: 1Y0-A19
Exam Name: Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration
Version: Demo
1Y0-A19 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator was informed by multiple users who access desktops in a desktop group that the time on the desktops is incorrect. How can the administrator fix the time on the desktops?
A. Edit the desktop group and change the time zone in ‘Edit user settings’
B. Put the desktops in maintenance mode and then change the time zone on each desktop.
C. Edit the catalog that was used to create the desktop group with the correct time for the desktops.
D. Put the vDisk image used by the desktops in Private image mode then change the time on the image.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which policy takes precedence when a Citrix policy contradicts an Active Directory GPO policy? 1Y0-A19 dumps
A. The Citrix policy
B. The higher priority policy
C. The most restrictive policy
D. The Active Directory GPO policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two tools can an administrator use to modify policy settings in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Desktop Studio
B. System Registry
C. Desktop Director
D. Group Policy Editor
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which administrative role can manage catalogs and build virtual desktops?
A. Machine administrator
B. Help desk administrator
C. Read-only administrator
D. Desktop group administrator
Correct Answer: A
1Y0-A19 dumps
QUESTION 5
An administrator configured the automatic disk image update feature, but has since noticed that changes to vDisks are not being replicated automatically. What could be a reason for this behavior?
A. The vDisk assigned to the target devices are in private image mode.
B. The target devices need to be reconfigured to point to the new vDisk files.
C. The target device has NOT restarted since the changes were applied to the vDisk.
D. There is more than one vDisk from the same Provisioning services host with the same Class.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express database? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a desktop group. 1Y0-A19 dumps The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Linux+
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1
Exam Code: LX0-101
Total Questions: 124 Q&As
LX0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user? LX0-101 dumps
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus.
Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’. LX0-101 dumps
When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog.
The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use.
How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to useWinZip.
Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. LX0-101 dumps How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Business Intelligence
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam Code: 070-461
Total Questions: 164 Q&As
070-461 dumps
QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2, and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. 070-461 dumps You plan to write and deploy a stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2 can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales person.
Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 4
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application. 070-461 pdf
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:
070-461 dumps
You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? 070-461 dumps
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Decimal
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
You are developing a database that will contain price information. 070-461 pdf You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit. 070-461 dumps
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

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