[The Latest Version] Update 210-065 Dumps Latest Cisco PDF Questions And VCE Youtube Free Try

Free latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf training materials and study guides download from lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps pdf and vce practice files. https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html dumps pdf training resources free update. Get the best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps exam questions and answers, pass Cisco 210-065 exam test easily at first try.

High quality Cisco 210-065 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRODRqVmVBYWxuc0k

High quality Cisco 300-360 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRbXA1TGRTOW5TYkE

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-065
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)
Version: Demo

QUESTION 1
An administrator wants to customize the alert thresholds in Cisco Prime Infrastructure.
Which section under system settings is used to perform this customization?
A. PI Alarms and Events
B. Configuration
C. PI Event Configuration
D. SNMP Configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Following a disaster, an engineer must configure a database restoration using Cisco UCS Director. Which kind of backup should be used?
A. FULL state
B. system configuration
C. all configuration
D. logical configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots. 210-065 dumps Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data?
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Correct Answer: D
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 4
A Cisco UCS Director user placed a service request with a workflow. Under which condition must the user wait for approval?
A. if the workflow is published in the Cisco Prime Service Catalog
B. if the workflow requires approval
C. if there is domain separation
D. if the service request is not standard
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a template in CloudSense Report Builder. Which three reports are available? 210-065 pdf (Choose three.)
A. Virtual Data Center
B. Global Account
C. Cloud
D. Physical Account
E. Global User
F. Virtual Account
Correct Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located? 210-065 dumps
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two features are available in the Cisco UCS Director chargeback module? (Choose two.)
A. Reusable Cost Models
B. Top 10 Reports
C. Dashboard
D. Quotas and Limits
E. Universal Compatibility
Correct Answer: A,C
210-065 dumps
QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. 210-065 pdf The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer wants to back up the Cisco UCS Director database. Which interface should be used?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. SSH
C. PuTTY
D. Shell Menu
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option describes what end user portal access allows? 210-065 dumps
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html dumps pdf questions and answers.

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Download Free Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Test Practice Questions And Youtube (Q11-20)

Latest Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free download, get the best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers from Lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps exam practice materials. High quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf and vce practice files, 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

Download free latest Cisco 100-105 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReEJYRlhNVjdGeVU

Download free latest Cisco 400-251 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRMmxoZk8xNUNsVHM

QUESTION 11
The business value approach helps you to do what?
A. Ensure that requirements gathering take the smallest possible resource and time
B. Use various techniques to add value through the discovery process
C. Bring sales opportunities earlier into the customer business roadmap, to avoid risks from possible budget cuts
D. Recommend services beyond the customer’s skill set, so you gain higher revenue
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which is an appropriate way to gain data useful for analyzing stakeholder support and power?
A. Benchmark study
B. Analyze win rates for the past 10 proposals you made to the company
C. Focus group with a team of customer executives
D. Business Motivation Model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the benefit of changing a pain point into an opportunity?
A. Reduces IT costs to the business
B. Uses technology to raise efficiency
C. Allows the customer to overcome a perceived issue with upside potential
D. Raises IT spending and leads to higher return on investment
Correct Answer: C
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 14                    100-105 dumps
When establishing a current view of your customer, which is an appropriate internal source of information?
A. Financial analyst forecasts of the company’s revenue for the next 3 years
B. Working documents created by new hires prior to their joining your organization
C. Websites of partners in the customer’s ecosystem
D. Service level agreements your firm helped to create, between the customer IT group and business units
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which customer-provided sources would give you insight into a public company’s recent financial condition?
A. A news article about a private company rumored to be an acquisition candidate for the customer
B. Quarterly filings with the country financial securities government authority
C. General market trends in an industry in which the customer participates
D. An 18-month old brochure that describes the company’s history
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Why would an investment analyst report be a good source of company information?
A. It may give you an inside track on internal management relationships
B. You will find company-endorsed estimates of product level sales growth
C. It can complement company-published data and give you insight for discovery
D. This will report the customer’s actual IT expenditures for hardware, software, services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which is a benefit from establishing credibility with multiple customer stakeholders?
A. You increase the odds of gaining an advocate for the largest cost alternative you can offer the customer
B. This shows your #1 priority is to build friends and allies
C. You build a basis for gaining insight into a range of customer viewpoints or priorities
D. You gain influence with the IT Executive, since they alone can help you displace a competitor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which tool or document should you use to help identify high level gaps in knowledge about your customer’s overall strategy and operating model? 100-105 dumps
A. Business Model Canvas
B. An account coverage plan for your team’s territory
C. Communications plan rollout of a new application
D. A win/loss review from a proposal delivered to the customer 12 months ago
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which option will establish credibility with a customer executive?
A. Ask informational questions about industry trends
B. Talk a lot about your products new features
C. Describe the benefits of Cisco’s approach to customer support
D. Demonstrate awareness and interest in the company’s priorities and published financials
Correct Answer: D

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-105.html dumps pdf training materials free download.

Watch the video to learn more: 

[The Latest Version] 2017 Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Files And Youtube With 100% Pass Guarantee

High quality actual Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam questions and answers free download at Lead4pass, practice tests with PDF and VCE format for Cisco CCNA 200-125 exam certification. https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf practice files. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily with latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf and vce training materials and study guides.

Download free latest Cisco 200-125 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSnZDMkVUWDJzLWM

Download free latest Cisco 300-075 dumps pdf from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VReEMzbXFDTzJDZEU

Question 1
Which of the following are security best practices when setting up a Cisco router? (Choose all the apply.)
A. Enable the password encryption service.
B. Enable Telnet for remote access.
C. Create a welcome.
D. Use the enable password command to restrict access to the router’s privileged mode.
E. Issue the exec-timeout 0 0 command to log out any idle sessions.
Answer: A

Question 2
A host in your network has been assigned an IP address of 192.168.181.182 /25.
What is the subnet to which the host belongs?
A. 192.168.181.128 /25
B. 192.168.181.0 /25
C. 192.168.181.176 /25
D. 192.168.181.192 /25
E. 192.168.181.160 /25
Answer: A

Question 3
You are configuring eBGP on router R1 seen in the figurE. You want to form a BGP neighborship with router R2. Which command would you issue from within BGP router configuration mode on router R1? 200-125 dumps
A. neighbor 198.51.100.2 remote-as 64495
B. neighbor 198.51.100.2 remote-as 64500
C. neighbor 198.51.100.1 remote-as 64495
D. neighbor 198.51.100.1 remote-as 64500
200-125 dumps
Answer: A

Question 4
You are assigning IP addresses to hosts in the 192.168.4.0 /26 subnet. Which two of the following IP addresses are assignable IP addresses that reside in that subnet? 200-125 pdf
A. 192.168.4.0
B. 192.168.4.63
C. 192.168.4.62
D. 192.168.4.32
E. 192.168.4.64
Answer: CD

Question 5
Which of the following is considered to be a reliable Transport Layer protocol?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
E. PPP
Answer: C

Question 6
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. Which devices will make a packet forwarding decision based on a destination IP address? (Choose 2.)
200-125 dumps
A. switch SW1
B. router R1
C. router R2
D. switch SW2
Answer: BC

Question 7
In the diagram below, Client A is sending a packet to Host 1. 200-125 dumps As the packet is coming into the Fa 0/0 interface on router R2, what is the source IP address in the packet’s header?
200-125 dumps
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 172.16.1.2
C. 192.16.1.1
D. 10.1.1.2
E. 172.16.1.1
F. 192.16.1.2
Answer: D

Question 8
Which of the following is not a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) port state?
A. Listening
B. Discarding
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answer: A

Question 9
A router resides at what layer of the TCP/IP Model? 200-125 pdf
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Internet
D. Network Interface
E. Session
Answer: C

Question 10
Consider the output of the show controllers commands issued on routers R1 and R2. Of these two routers, which one should have a clock rate set for the specified serial interface, 200-125 dumps and how do you know from the output?
R1#show controllers serial 0/2/0
Interface Serial0/2/0
Hardware is GT96K
DTE V.35idb at 0x47FFCA4C, driver data structure at 0x48004290
wic_info 0x480048BC
Physical Port 5, SCC Num 5
MPSC Registers:
MMCR_L=0x000304C0, MMCR_H=0x00000000, MPCR=0x00000100
CHR1=0x00FE007E, CHR2=0x00000000, CHR3=0x0000064A, CHR4=0x00000000
CHR5=0x00000000, CHR6=0x00000000, CHR7=0x00000000, CHR8=0x00000000
CHR9=0x00000000, CHR10=0x00003008
SDMA Registers:
… OUTPUT OMITTED …
R2#show controllers serial 1/0
CD2430 Slot 1, Port 0, Controller 0, Channel 0, Revision 19
Channel mode is synchronous serial
idb 0x466767F0, buffer size 1524, V.35 DCE cable, clockrate 128000
Global registers
rpilr 0x2, rir 0x2, risr 0x0, rfoc 0x0, rdr 0x0
tpilr 0x1, tir 0x0, tisr 0x68, tftc 0x0, tdr 0x90
mpilr 0x3, mir 0x1, misr 0x60
bercnt 0xFF, stk 0x0
Per-channel registers for channel 0
… OUTPUT OMITTED …
A. R1 should have the clock rate set, because the DTE end of the serial cable connects to R1.
B. R1 should have the clock rate set, because the DCE end of the serial cable connects to R1.
C. R2 should have the clock rate set, because the DTE end of the serial cable connects to R2.
D. R2 should have the clock rate set, because the DCE end of the serial cable connects to R2.
Answer: D

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf practice materials and study guides.

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Download Latest Cisco 400-351 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube

2017 free latest Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps exam training resources download from Lead4pass. High quality Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps exam questions and answers free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/400-351.html dumps pdf practice files. Lead4pass offers best Cisco CCIE Wireless 400-351 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 400-351 exam test easily at first try.

Download free latest Cisco 400-351 Dumps PDF From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRV1NkNFZ3SW80UVU

Download free latest Cisco 400-251 Dumps PDF From Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRMmxoZk8xNUNsVHM

Question No : 1
Your customer has a Cisco unified Wireless Network running AireOS 8.0 and wants to learn about the FlexConnect mode that is available on his APs which two statementsare true?(choose two)
A. When an AP is changed from localmode to FlexConnect mode a reboot is required.
B. A newly connected AP can be booted in FlexConnect mode
C. When an AP IS changed from local mode to FlexConnect mode a reboot IS not required.
D. Cisco Centralized Key Management require the use of FlexConnect group
Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
You are implementing a WLC at a remote site and want to make sure that you are able to sync up with the Cisco WCS at the central site. 400-351 pdf Which two statements about this process are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the WLC is behind a firewall, you must make sure that UDP ports 161 and 162 are open.
B. The Cisco WCS server does not need direct IP connectivity to the WLC.
C. Cisco WCS will not be able to communicate with the WLC if the WLC is behind a NAT device.
D. If the WLC is behind a NAT device, the WLC’s dynamic AP-manager interface must be configured with the external NAT IP address.
Answer: A,C
400-351 dumps
Question No : 3
When creating a guest account on Cisco identity Services Engine. 400-351 dumps Which option in the sponsor portal allows for the guest credentials to be used for RADIUS authentication without requiring the guest user to log into the guest portal?
A. Set the Guest role to Guest
B. Set the Guest role to Activated guest
C. Set the Time Profile to Radius 1Day
D. Check the box to send email not send email notification id the guest user name is based on the email address.
Answer: B

Question No : 4
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. DevStack
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. OpenStack
E. Xen
Answer: C,E

Question No : 5
You are in process of installing Cisco prime high availability servers and you have a firewall between the primary and secondary server. Which two incoming and outgoing TCPIUDP ports must be enabled on the firewall for Cisco prime servers to exchange health monitoring heartbeat massage and to allow Oracle to synchronize data? (Choose two}
A. 1521
B. 8080
C. 8082
D. 1522
Answer: C,D

Question No : 6
Which port does cisco JSE use by default to send RADIUS CoA messages to the Cisco WLC? 400-351 dumps
A. UDP 3799
B. UDP 1813
C. UDP 1700
D. TCP 1812
Answer: C

Question No : 7
In which direction does application visibility and controller mark the DSCP value of the original Packet in the wireless LAN controller?
A. in one direction, either upstream or downstream
B. in one direction, downstream only
C. in both direction upstream and down stream
D. in one direction upstream only
Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which two options are valid mobility roles in which a controller can operate in during a client mobility session? 400-351 pdf (Choose two.)
A. local
B. auto anchor
C. export anchor
D. mobility announcer
Answer: A,C

Question No : 9
Which statement about wireless LAN security in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network VoWLAN deployment is false?
A. EAP-FAST, if available, is the recommended EAP type for use in VoWLAN deployments.
B. Although LEAP is considered secure for VoWLAN handsets when correctly deployed, it is recommended that a different EAP method (FAST, PEAP, TLS) is used, if available.
C. Dynamic WEP mitigates the security weaknesses in static WEP, making it a viable option that can be relied upon to secure a VoWLAN deployment.
D. When using EAP authentication, the EAP-Request timeout value should be adjusted based only on the advice of the VoWLAN handset vendor.
E. When using WPA Personal, strong keys should be used to avoid a dictionary attack.
Answer: D

Question No : 10
While troubleshooting a failed central web authentication configuration on cisco WLC you discover that the Cisco 400-351 dumps WLC policy manager state is showing RUN For new client and not CENTRAL_WEB_AUTH what is most likely the issue.?
A. The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
B. The WLAN NAC state should be set to RADIUS NAC
C. The web login page under the cisco WLC security should be set to external (redirect to external server)
D. The WLAN layer 3 security should be set to web page policy with condition web redirect.
Answer: B

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/400-351.html dumps pdf questions and answers online free update.

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Free Latest Cisco 210-255 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube Download

High quality latest Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. http://www.gotocert.com/210-255.html dumps exam questions and answers free update. The best and most updated CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 dumps pdf training materials, pass Cisco 210-255 exam test easily.

QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.) 210-255 pdf
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 4          210-255 dumps
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets? 210-255 dumps
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.) 210-255 pdf
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which three components make up the Heat Orchestration piece of Cisco Prime Service Catalog? (Choose three) 210-255 dumps
A. Orchestration service with embedded Heat engine
B. Swift
C. Glance
D. Keystone
E. RabbitMQ server
F. Stack Designer
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 15
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7? 210-255 pdf
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

Read more: http://www.gotocert.com/210-255.html dumps pdf training materials and study guide.

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Update Free Latest Microsoft 70-742 Dumps PDF Training Materials And Youtube

The latest Microsoft MCSA 70-742 dumps exam Cert Guide is the most comprehensive study guide available for certification candidates who want to pass Microsoft’s 70-742 exam test. http://www.exammoon.com/70-742.html dumps pdf training materials. Pass Microsoft exam at first try. Download MCSA exam 70-742 Premium PDF Files.

QUESTION 1
At work, you use a desktop computer that runs Windows 8 Pro. At home, you use a laptop that runs Windows 8. You use the same Microsoft account to log on to both computers.
You want to use the same settings for both computers.
You need to ensure that all computer settings, including stored passwords, are synced between the computers.
What should you do?
A. Add both computers to the same Active Directory domain.
B. Use the same local accounts for both computers.
C. Install SkyDrive for Windows on both computers.
D. Designate both computers as trusted PCs.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your company recently purchased 10 new desktop computers for a remote unconnected location. All of the desktop computers have the same hardware configuration.
You install Windows 8 Pro on a reference computer and install a custom driver to support the video adapter.
You want to create an image of the reference desktop that retains the custom driver in the image.
You need to edit the unattended answer file.
Which setting in the unattended answer file should you edit?
A. Microsoft-Windows-PnPSysprep | PersistAllDeviceInstalls
B. Microsoft-Windows-PnPSysprep | DoNotCleanUpNonPresentDevices
C. Microsoft-Windows-PnpCustomizattonNonWinPE | DriverPaths
D. Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup | OEMInformation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You administer laptops and virtual desktop computers that run Windows 8 and are joined to an Active Directory domain.
Your company provides virtual desktop computers to all users. Employees in the sales department also use laptops, sometimes connected to the company network and sometimes disconnected from the company network.
You want sales department employees to have the same personal data, whether they are using their virtual desktop computers or their laptops. 70-742 pdf
You need to configure the network environment to meet the requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
(To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-742 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-742 dumps
QUESTION 4      70-742 dumps
You administer laptop and desktop computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain. Your company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune.
You plan to install Intune Endpoint Protection on all computers. Some of the computers also have another antimalware application installed.
You need to ensure that only the Intune Endpoint Protection application is running on all computers.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Enable Realtime Protection policy to Yes.
B. Configure the Enable Endpoint Protection policy to Only on computers that are unprotected when Endpoint Protection is installed.
C. Configure the Enable Endpoint Protection policy setting to Yes.
D. Configure the Enable Endpoint Protection policy setting to No.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Your company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune. You use Windows Intune to automatically deploy Windows updates.
You create an automatic approval rule in Windows Intune but notice that previously existing updates are not deployed.
You need to ensure that all previously existing updates are automatically approved.
What should you do?
A. Run the approval rule.
B. Edit the schedule for the automatic approval rule.
C. Create and deploy a policy that uses the recommended settings in the Windows Intune Center Settings template.
D. Create and deploy a custom policy in the Windows Intune Center Settings template.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You administer computers that run Windows 8 Pro. The desktops have the Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed. Multiple App-V applications are published on the network. 70-742 pdf
A user reports that it is taking a long time to launch App-V applications on his computer. You discover that the user has a roaming profile on the computer.
You need to minimize the time that is required for the user to start App-V applications on the computer.
What should you do?
A. Change the user profile to Super-Mandatory.
B. Change the location of the App-V client cache file on the computer.
C. Increase the size of the App-V client cache on the computer.
D. Change the user profile to Local.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You administer a company network that includes computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain. The company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune.
Corporate security policy requires that computers in the accounting department have file and program activity logged. A user in the accounting department uses a computer that is managed by Windows Intune.
You need to ensure that file and program activity is always monitored on this computer.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Windows Firewall Setting policy in the Windows Intune Admin Console.
B. In the Windows Intune Admin Console, create a new Windows Intune Agent Settings policy that uses the recommended settings.
C. Create a new Windows Intune Mobile Security policy in the Windows Intune Admin Console.
D. Create and deploy a custom policy in the Windows Intune Center Settings template.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. Microsoft BitLocker Administration and Monitoring (MBAM) is deployed on your network on a server named MBAM1. 70-742 dumps
Company policy requires that within 2 hours of being started, computers that have the MBAM client installed prompt users to enable BitLocker.
You need to make changes to the Configure MBAM Services Group Policy settings.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set MBAM Recovery and Hardware service endpoint to MBAM1.
B. Set Enter status reporting frequency (in minutes) to 120.
C. Set MBAM Status reporting endpoint to MBAM1.
D. Set Select Bitlocker Recovery Information to store to Recovery password and key package.
E. Set Select Bitlocker Recovery Information to store to Recovery password only.
F. Set Enter client checking status frequency (in minutes) to 120.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 9
You administer computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain. Your company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune. 70-742 pdf
Users access a Microsoft Exchange environment by using the Mail tile. The Microsoft Exchange environment is connected to Windows Intune. Company security policy defines the minimum length of passwords and required encryption settings.
You need to create a Windows Intune policy that meets the security policy requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Windows Intune Center Settings policy.
B. Create a new Windows Intune Agent Settings policy.
C. Create a new Windows Intune Mobile Security policy.
D. Create a new Windows Firewall Settings policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You support computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise.
Your company has started testing Application Virtualization (App-V) applications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V applications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. 70-742 dumps
You need to ensure that the App-V applications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
B. Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache.
C. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
D. Change user permissions to the App-V applications.
Correct Answer: C

Read more: http://www.exammoon.com/70-742.html

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Latest ACI 3I0-012 Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

Latest and most accurate ACI 3I0-012 exam training materials are written according to the best real IT exams. All the 3I0-012 exam practice questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 3I0-012 exam test easily.

QUESTION 1
You hear from a client of good standing that a major market participant has taken major losses on its proprietary trading book and is desperate for liquidity. You are not convinced that the story is true, but have a friend at another bank who you know has very large exposures to this firm and would be seriously damaged by a default. What advice does the Model Code give?
A. Unsubstantiated information which you suspect to be inaccurate and which could be damaging to a third party should not be passed on in any circumstances.
B. Unsubstantiated information which you suspect to be inaccurate and which could be damaging to a third party should be discussed only with great care.
C. Unsubstantiated information which you suspect to be inaccurate and which could be damaging to a third party should be reported to the regulator in order to provide warning of possible systemic problems.
D. You have a duty to warn counterparties but should make clear that the information is unsubstantiated.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is issued by auction?
A. Treasury bill
B. CD
C. BA
D. USCP
Correct Answer: A
3I0-012
QUESTION 3                3I0-012
You are quoted the following market rates:
spot EUR/USD. 1.2250
3M (91-day) EUR 2.55%
3M (91-day) USD. 2.00%
What is 3-month EUR/USD?
A. 1.2232
B. 1.2233
C. 1.2234
D. 1.2267
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 111.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 111.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 111.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 111.55
What position do you now have?
A. Short USD 1.50 million at 112.60
B. Short USD 3.50 million at 111.75
C. Long USD 1.50 million at 111.10
D. Long USD 3.50 million at 111.55
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The use of off-market rates is discouraged and should be permitted only:
A. When the bank’s income is secured on the trade.
B. If the unsecured credit is taken into account.
C. It the bank knows the customer very well.
D. When there are written procedures and policies for such transactions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Bank XYZ calls you for a quote in EUR/USD for EURO 20 million. If you decide to quote to Bank XYZ:
A. You must be prepared to deal up to EUR 20 million.
B. You may quote without stating the amount you are prepared to deal.
C. You are only committed to deal in a marketable amount.
D. None or the above.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the risk of dealing through an agent with an unknown principal? 3I0-012
A. You may not be able to ensure that your firm can avoid suspicion of trading on non-public information or other allegations of bad or illegal trading practice.
B. You may not be able to net your exposure in an insolvency.
C. You may not be able to net your exposure for capital adequacy purposes.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
It is up to the vendors of electronic dealing platforms to ensure that dealers are trained to use their systems.
A. Management should ensure dealers fully understand the systems they use and dealers should read the manuals.
B. Management, dealers and vendors share responsibility.
C. Dealers are required to pass the ACI Dealing Certificate before being allowed to access electronic dealing platforms.
D. Given the wide range of electronic dealing platforms used by banks, it is the responsibility of the vendors to ensure individual users are adequately trained.
Correct Answer: A

ACI 3I0-012 ACI-Financial Markets Association is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality ACI 3I0-012 ACI-Financial Markets Association ACI Dealing Certificate training materials.

Watch the video to learn more:

[The Latest Version] Latest Microsoft 070-412 VCE Questions And Answers – Youtube

High quality Microsoft Windows Server 2012 070-412 vce exam training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.
The best and most updated Windows Server 2012 070-412 vce exam training materials, 070-412 vce exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets.

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1.
You install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1.
You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to set the access scope of all the DHCP servers that are managed by IPAM. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which user role should you assign to User1?
A. DNS Record Administrator Role
B. IPAM DHCP Reservations Administrator Role
C. IPAM Administrator Role
D. IPAM DHCP Administrator Role
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The IPAM DHCP administrator role completely manages DHCP servers.
070-412 vce
QUESTION 2              070-412 vce
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
On Dc1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-412 vce
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
B. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
D. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
To access configuration data and server event logs, the IPAM server must be a member of the domain IPAM Users Group (IPAMUG). The IPAM server must also be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
Note: The computer account of the IPAM server must be a member of the Event Log Readers se- curity group.

QUESTION 3
You have a server named SCI that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
Shadow copies are enabled on all volumes.
You need to delete a specific shadow copy. The solution must minimize server downtime.
Which tool should you use?
A. Shadow
B. Diskshadow
C. Wbadmin
D. Diskpart
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
DiskShadow.exe is a tool that exposes the functionality offered by the Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS).
The diskshadow command delete shadows deletes shadow copies.

QUESTION 4
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.  070-412 vce
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
D: Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (user- name and password) created during enrollment.
E: The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that in- cludes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C: TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to in- clude or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes.

QUESTION 5
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup 070-412 vce exam
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

Read more: http://www.geturnet.com/latest-microsoft-70-532-dumps/

Related: http://www.jrocam.com/latest-cisco-642-263-dumps/

Reference: http://www.braindump4it.com/latest-cisco-700-270-exam/

Watch the video to learn more:

Download Latest Huawei H12-211 PDF Exam Questions And Answers – 100% Free Demo

QUESTION 1
A user accesses a server supporting AAA, for which the authorization mode on the AAA server has been configured using the command “authorization-mode Huawei H12-211 pdf hwtacacs if-authenticated”. Which of the following statements regarding this command are true? (Choose three).
A. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using local authentication.
B. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will be authenticated using remote authentication.
C. If the hwtacacs server fails to respond, the user will bypass authentication.
D. The hwtacacs server will authorize the user.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network through a single password, however the company wishes to introduce another two administrators and provide unique user credentials and privilege levels for telnet access to the network devices. What action can be taken? (Choose three)
A. Configure three users under the AAA-view, and assign each a different password.
B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.
C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.
D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access
Correct Answer: ABC
H12-211
QUESTION 3                              H12-211 pdf
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 4
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]domain huawei
[RTA-aaa-domain-huawei]authentication-scheme au1
[RTA-aaa-domain-huawei]authentication-scheme au2
Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and associated with the “huawei” domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication- scheme will be used
A. au1
B. au2
C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2
D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following descriptions regarding eSight is not correct?   H12-211 pdf
A. eSight is used to monitor and manage enterprise networks.
B. eSight supports only Huawei devices
C. eSight supports WLAN management and monitoring of hotspot coverage.
D. eSight supports the backup of configuration files and network traffic analysis.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What of the following statements is correct regarding access control list types and ranges?
A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999
B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000
C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999
D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator wishes to deny Host A access to the HTTP server but allow access to all other servers. Which of the following ACL rules will achieve this?
A. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21
B. Rule deny tcp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80
C. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 21
D. Rule deny udp source 10.1.1.1 0 destination 202.100.1.12 0.0.0.0 destination-port eq 80
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed. What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further changes? (Choose three)
A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to 0.
B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the router.
D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router
Correct Answer: ABC

Read more: http://www.passitexams.com/h12-211.html Latest Huawei H12-211 exam pdf. Huawei H12-211 demo download for free. The most professional and reliable study guide.

Reference: http://www.geturnet.com/latest-cisco-300-075-dumps/

Related: http://www.jrocam.com/latest-cisco-642-188-dumps/

Click here to learn more: http://www.braindump4it.com/latest-microsoft-070-488-dumps/

Download Latest Cisco 300-206 Exam Study Guide And Practice Materials Free Try

Question No : 1
Which addresses are considered “ambiguous addresses” and are put on the greylist by the Cisco ASA botnet traffic filter feature?
A. addresses that are unknown
B. addresses that are on the greylist identified by the dynamic database
C. addresses that are blacklisted by the dynamic database but also are identified by the static whitelist
D. addresses that are associated with multiple domain names, but not all of these domain names are on theblacklist
Answer: D

Question No : 2
What is the default log level on the Cisco 300-206 exam Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
Answer: C
300-206
Question No : 3
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Answer: A

Question No : 4
A router is being enabled for SSH command line access.
The following steps have been taken:
-The vty ports have 300-206 pdf been configured with transport input SSH and login local.
-Local user accounts have been created.
-The enable password has been configured.
What additional step must be taken if users receive a ‘connection refused’ error when attempting to access the router via SSH?
A. A RSA keypair must be generated on the router
B. An access list permitting SSH inbound must be configured and applied to the vty ports
C. An access list permitting SSH outbound must be configured and applied to the vty ports
D. SSH v2.0 must be enabled on the router
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which two router commands enable NetFlow on an interface? (Choose two.)
A. ip flow ingress
B. ip flow egress
C. ip route-cache flow infer-fields
D. ip flow ingress infer-fields
E. ip flow-export version 9
Answer: A,B

Question No : 6
How much storage is allotted to maintain system, configuration, and image files on the Cisco ASA 1000V during OVF template file deployment?
A. 1GB
B. 5GB
C. 2GB
D. 10GB
Answer: C

Question No : 7
Which ASA feature is used to 300-206 vce keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports.
B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports.
C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode.
D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode.
E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port.
F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 9
Which two statements about Cisco IDS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is preferred for detection-only deployment.
B. It is used for installations that require strong network-based protection and that include sensor tuning.
C. It is used to boost sensor sensitivity at the expense of false positives.
D. It is used to monitor critical systems and to avoid false positives that block traffic.
E. It is used primarily to inspect egress traffic, to filter outgoing threats.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 10
What are two reasons for 300-206 dumps implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)
A. Internet edges typically have a lower volume of traffic and threats are easier to detect.
B. Internet edges typically have a higher volume of traffic and threats are more difficult to detect.
C. Internet edges provide connectivity to the Internet and other external networks.
D. Internet edges are exposed to a larger array of threats.
E. NIPS is more optimally designed for enterprise Internet edges than for internal network configurations.
Answer: C,D

Read more: http://www.teststarter.com/300-206.html Latest and most accurate Cisco 300-206 exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers. The most professional expert team to back up our grate quality products. If you still cannot make your decision on purchasing our product, please try our free demo.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/specialist-senss.html

Related: http://www.vcedemo.com/latest-cisco-300-206-exam/

Click here to learn more: http://www.geturnet.com/lead4pass-the-best-site/

Watch the video to learn more: