Latest And Hottest Cisco 350-018 Dumps Exam Study Guide

Question No : 1
Which statement is true about Cisco 350-018 dumps an SNMPv2 communication?
A. The whole communication is not encrypted.
B. Only the community field is encrypted.
C. Only the query packets are encrypted.
D. The whole communication is encrypted.
Answer: A

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
350-018
Which statement is true?
A. This packet decoder is using relative TCP sequence numbering?.
B. This TCP client is proposing the use of TCP window scaling?.
C. This packet represents an active FTP data session?.
D. This packet contains no TCP payload.
Answer: D

Question No : 3
What is the purpose of the 350-018 vce BGP TTL security check?
A. The BGP TTL security check is used for iBGP session.
B. The BGP TTL security check protects against CPU utilization-based attacks.
C. The BGP TTL security check checks for a TTL value in packet header of less than or equal to for successful peering.
D. The BGP TTL security check authenticates a peer.
E. The BGP TTL security check protects against routing table corruption.
Answer: B

Question No : 4
Which two statements about Network Edge Authentication Technology (NEAT) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can be configured on both access ports and trunk ports.
B. It allows you to configure redundant links between authenticator and supplicant switches
C. It can be configured on both access ports and EtherChannel ports.
D. It supports port-based authentication on the authenticator switch.
E. It conflicts with auto-configuration
F. It requires a standard ACL on the switch port.
Answer: A,D

Question No : 5
During the establishment of 350-018 pdf an Easy VPN tunnel, when is XAUTH performed?
A. at the end of IKEv1 Phase 2
B. at the beginning of IKEv1 Phase 1
C. at the end of Phase 1 and before Phase 2 starts in IKEv1 and IKEv2
D. at the end of Phase 1 and before Phase 2 starts in IKEv1
Answer: D

Question No : 6
In Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) , which web policy enables failed Layer 2 authentication to 350-018 exam fall back to WebAuth authentication with a user name and password ?
A. Splash Page Web Redirect
B. B. Passthough
C. C.On MAC Filter Failure
D. D. Authentcaiton
E. E.Conditional Web Redirect
Answer: C

Question No : 7
Which three IP resources is IANA responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. IP address allocation
B. detection of spoofed address
C. criminal prosecution of hackers
D. autonomous system number allocation
E. root zone management in DNS
F. BGP protocol vulnerabilities
Answer: A,D,E

Question No : 8
Which two options correctly describe Remote 350-018 Triggered Black Hole Filtering (RFC 5635)? (Choose two.)
A. RTBH destination based filtering can drop traffic destined to a host based on triggered entries in the FIB.
B. RTBH source based filtering will drop traffic from a source destined to a host based on triggered entries in the RIB
C. Loose uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH destination based filtering
D. Strict uRPF must be used in conjunction with RTBH source based filtering
E. RTBH uses a discard route on the edge devices of the network and a route server to send triggered route updates
F. When setting the BGP community attribute in a route-map for RTBH use the no-export community unless BGP confederations are used then use local-as to advertise to sub-asconfederations
Answer: A,E

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Latest CompTIA SK0-004 Dumps Exam Study Materials Update Free Try

QUESTION 1
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web server will use the database backend to CompTIA SK0-004 dumps retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC. The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
Correct Answer: A
SK0-004
QUESTION 2
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the SK0-004 technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the SK0-004 following MUST be done when imaging a Windows Server that will be used as a template?
A. Remove software
B. Run Windows Updates
C. Update drivers
D. Sysprep
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port.
Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician manages a server that contains sensitive data. The server SK0-004 currently has two hard drives, one hosting the operating system and other generic files and the second hosting sensitive data. The technician needs to implement a technology that would guard against data loss for only the sensitive data, while adding only one additional hard drive. Which of the following should the technician implement to avoid reformatting any drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B
SK0-004
QUESTION 7
When planning for redundant power sources in a server deployment, which of the following should be purchased? (Select TWO).
A. RAID controllers
B. Multiple UPSs
C. Redundant cooling
D. Dual NICs
E. Redundant power supplies
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an advantage of RAID 0?
A. Mirrors data
B. Redundancy
C. Speed
D. Automatic hot spare
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A technician is installing a server with sixteen SK0-004 1 TB drives. They want the benefit of both speed and redundancy. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 50
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following types of UPS would be used with equipment that is very sensitive to power fluctuations?
A. Offline / Standby
B. Line interactive
C. Rackmount
D. Online / Double Conversion
Correct Answer: D

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High Quality Cisco 600-455 Exam Study Materials And Youtube Free Try

This file is so much valid, there were about 5 drag and drop quesitons, I faced three simulations, radius, port aggregation, mls with eigrp. I’m so glad that I have chosen you as my assistant with Cisco 600-455 exam my exam, all with the exact IPs are in the quesitons here! Best study material cool stuff and nice dump.

QUESTION 1
Which three options are valid functions performed by Mobility Management Entity? (Choose three.)
A. Header compression and user plane ciphering
B. PDN GW and Serving GW selection
C. Tracking area list management
D. User plane packet forwarding and routing
E. UE IP address allocation
F. NAS signaling
Correct Answer: BCF

600-455

QUESTION 2
Which two radio technologies 600-455 are used in LTE? (Choose two.)
A. OFDMA
B. MIMO
C. TDMA
D. EV-DO
E. VOR
F. DME
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two statements apply during the attach procedure on an MME? (Choose two.)
A. The attach procedure provides an always-on IP connectivity to the subscriber.
B. Multiple default bearers can be established during the attach procedure.
C. A dedicated bearer can also be established during the attach procedure.
D. The additional guti value in the attach request is derived from a PTMSI.
E. The attach request is always integrity protected.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which statement describes what 600-455 dumps occurs during an inter-MME tracking area update procedure?
A. The old MME does the integrity check of the context request by using the old GUTI in the context request message.
B. The SGW change indication is conveyed to the old MME in the context ack message.
C. The SGW change indication is conveyed to the old MME in the context request message.
D. The old MME does the integrity check of the context request by using the PTMSI signature in the context request message.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two nodes exchange the 600-455 create indirect data tunnel request during LTE to UMTS handover? (Choose two.)
A. source MME to target SGW
B. source MME to target SGSN
C. target SGSN to target SGW
D. source MME to source SGW
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
A. pre-emption capability
B. ARP priority
C. MBR of PDP context associated with the background traffic class
D. MBR of PDP context associated with the interactive traffic class
E. pre-emption vulnerability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which option describes the 600-455 vce flow of the S6a configuration on the Cisco ASR 5000 system?
A. MME-service, hss-peer-service, diameter endpoint, peer configuration
B. MME-service, diameter endpoint, hss-peer-service, peer configuration
C. MME-service, diameter endpoint, S6a-service, peer configuration
D. s6a-service, hss-peer-service, diameter endpoint, peer configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which service does the S11 interface configuration correspond to on the Cisco ASR 5000 system?
A. egtp-service
B. sgtp-service
C. egtp-sv-service
D. gtpu-service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which MME feature can be configured in the 600-455 call control policy on the Cisco ASR 5000 system?
A. super-charger feature configuration
B. sgtp-service association
C. direct-tunnel feature configuration
D. RAT frequency selection priority override
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which EPS integrity algorithm is mandatory for the UEs?
A. EIA0
B. SNOW 3G
C. AES
D. ZUC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which parameter provides support 600-455 pdf of radio resource management by the MME across the S1 interface?
A. RFSP index
B. relative MME capacity
C. GUTI
D. OLD-GUTI
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two Transport protocols can be used for the 600-455 S6a interface? (Choose two.)
A. SCTP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. FCP
E. RDP
Correct Answer: AB

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How To Pass Juniper JN0-633 Dumps Exam Test Quickly And Easily

Vendor: Juniper
Exam Code: JN0-633
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Professional Security (JNCIP-SEC)
Version: Demo

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JN0-633

QUESTION 1
What are two network scanning methods? (Choose two.)
A. SYN flood
B. ping of death
C. ping sweep
D. UDP scan
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
What are two intrusion protection mechanisms available on JN0-633 SRX Series Services Gateways? (Choose two.)
A. routing update detection
B. traffic anomaly detection
C. NAT anomaly protection
D. DoS protection
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
What is a benefit of using a dynamic VPN?
A. It provides a layer of redundancy on top of a point-to-point VPN mesh architecture.
B. It eliminates the need for point-to-point VPN tunnels.
C. It provides a way to grant VPN access on a per-user-group basis.
D. It simplifies IPsec access for remote clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is a benefit of using a JN0-633 exam group VPN?
A. It provides a layer of redundancy on top of a point-to-point VPN mesh architecture.
B. It eliminates the need for point-to-point VPN tunnels.
C. It provides a way to grant VPN access on a per-user-group basis.
D. It simplifies IPsec access for remote clients.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about JN0-633 Layer 2 zones when implementing transparent mode security?
A. All interfaces in the zone must be configured with the protocol family mpls.
B. All interfaces in the zone must be configured with the protocol family inet.
C. All interfaces in the zone must be configured with the protocol family bridge.
D. All interfaces in the zone must be configured with the protocol family inet6.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are two AppSecure modules? (Choose two.)
A. AppDoS
B. AppFlow
C. AppTrack
D. AppNAT
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
You are working as a security administrator and must configure a solution to JN0-633 pdf protect against distributed
botnet attacks on your company’s central SRX cluster.
How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Configure AppTrack to inspect and drop traffic from the malicious hosts.
B. Configure AppQoS to block the malicious hosts.
C. Configure AppDoS to rate limit connections from the malicious hosts.
D. Configure AppID with a custom application to block traffic from the malicious hosts.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are asked to change the JN0-633 configuration of your company’s SRX device so that you can block nested traffic from certain Web sites, but the main pages of these Web sites must remain available to users. Which two methods will accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the HTTP ALG.
B. Implement a firewall filter for Web traffic.
C. Use an IDP policy to inspect the Web traffic.
D. Configure an application firewall rule set.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
You are using the AppDoS feature to control against malicious bot client attacks. The bot clients are using file downloads to attack your server farm. You have configured a context value rate of JN0-633 10,000 hits in 60 seconds. At which threshold will the bot clients no longer be classified as malicious?
A. 5000 hits in 60 seconds
B. 8000 hits in 60 seconds
C. 7500 hits in 60 seconds
D. 9999 hits in 60 seconds
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your company’s network has seen an increase in JN0-633 vce Facebook-related traffic. You have been asked to restrict the amount of Facebook-related traffic to less than 100 Mbps regardless of congestion. What are three components used to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)
A. IDP policy
B. application traffic control
C. application firewall
D. security policy
E. application signature
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
You recently implemented application firewall rules on an SRX device to act upon encrypted traffic. However, the encrypted traffic is not being correctly identified. Which JN0-633 two actions will help the SRX device correctly identify the encrypted traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Enable heuristics to detect the encrypted traffic.
B. Disable the application system cache.
C. Use the junos:UNSPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
D. Use the junos:SPECIFIED-ENCRYPTED application signature.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
You have just created a few hundred application firewall rules on an SRX device and applied them to the appropriate firewall polices. However, you are concerned that the SRX device might become overwhelmed with the increased processing required to process traffic through the application firewall rules.
Which three actions will help reduce the amount of processing required by the JN0-633 application firewall rules? (Choose three.)
A. Use stateless firewall filtering to block the unwanted traffic.
B. Implement AppQoS to drop the unwanted traffic.
C. Implement screen options to block the unwanted traffic.
D. Implement IPS to drop the unwanted traffic.
E. Use security policies to block the unwanted traffic.
Correct Answer: ACE

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Latest Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam Practice Questions Online Free Download

Oracle Oracle Database is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have helped in driving thousands of companies on the sure-shot path of success. Comprehensive knowledge of Oracle 1Z0-060 exam Oracle Database products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

1Z0-060

QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp
file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on 1Z0-060 one of the PDBs and receives the following error:

ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’ ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation

Explanation:
*Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that 1Z0-060 pdf it can automatically re-create them when needed.
*If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs, standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 2
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:
Which two 1Z0-060 statements are true about redefining the table?
A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation

Explanation:
C (not D): CONS_VPD_AUTO Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
*DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained 1Z0-060 dumps access control administrative interface, which is used to implement Virtual Private Database
(VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note:
*CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the “options_flag” parameter in both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and
CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that
the redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo-primary keys (which are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints).

*DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online 1Z0-060 vce redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are
used by the materialized views during refresh synchronization.
*START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the
post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.

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Pass Cisco 642-999 Exam Test With Best Cisco 642-999 PDF Study Materials

QUESTION 1
Which three items represent message formats that Cisco 642-999 exam pdf are available to send fault data using Cisco Call Home? (Choose three.)
A. short text
B. long text
C. HTML
D. SOAP API
E. XML
F. Java
Correct Answer: ABE

642-999

QUESTION 2
Which item describes the failure scenario called a “split-brain” in the Cisco 642-999 vce Unified Computing System?
A. failure of the Cisco Unified Computing System L1-L2 network
B. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Controller
C. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System I/O module
D. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect
E. failure of a Cisco Unified Computing System Chassis Management Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two are true concerning the role-based access control specifics of a Cisco 642-999 pdf Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. Disabled local user accounts are deleted from the database.
B. A locally authenticated user account is any user account that is authenticated through LDAP, RADIUS, or TACACS+.
C. If a user maintains a local user account and a remote user account simultaneously, the roles that are defined in the local user account override those that are maintained in the remote user account.
D. By default, user accounts expire after 90 days; a warning message will be generated 10 days prior to expiration.
E. A user that is assigned one or more roles will be allowed the privileges that are consistent across all of the assigned roles.
F. All roles include read access to all configuration settings in the Cisco Unified Computing System domain.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 4
Which two are true concerning authorization within a Cisco 642-999 Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. A role defines a collection of privileges that determines which actions a user can take in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager.
B. Authorization consists of three components (roles, password policy, and locales) that are based on which features and resources the user will not have access to.
C. Customized roles can be configured on and downloaded from remote AAA servers.
D. The logical resources, pools and policies, are grouped into roles.
E. If the service profile cannot find available resources, it will search in the parent organization for pools and resources.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
Which two are true with respect to the upgrade process for the Cisco 642-999 dumps Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. For easier manageability, Cisco provides one full bundle that contains the firmware images for all Cisco Unified Computing System components.
B. You can choose from FTP, TFTP, SCP, and HTTP to copy the bundle image from a remote file system.
C. When the bundle image is downloaded, it must be transferred to the flash file system of the active fabric interconnect.
D. When the download is successful, Cisco Unified Computing System Manager expands the individual files from the archive and installs them in the correct flash file system partition.
E. It is strongly recommended that you activate all components in all chassis at one time.
F. The I/O module, CIMC, and adaptors update process operates strictly on the backup partition of Flash for a given component.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco UCS firmware are contained in the Cisco 642-999 UCS Infrastructure software bundle? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco UCS BIOS
B. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects firmware
C. Cisco UCS adapters
D. Cisco UCS Manager
E. Cisco I/O module firmware
F. Cisco IMC
Correct Answer: BDE

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Download Free Cisco 100-105 Exam Test Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What factors should you use when measuring resources to 100-105 exam help you size your Steelhead appliances? (Select 3)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Average response time
C. Maximum number of optimized connections
D. Datastore capacity
E. Maximum number of TCP connections
F. WAN capacity
Correct Answer: CDF

100-105

QUESTION 2
What WAN traffic problems do 100-105 Steelhead appliances overcome? (Select 3)
A. Number of connections per second
B. Data deduplication
C. Bandwidth
D. Latency
E. TCP window size
F. Optimization
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 3
Steelhead appliances increase. (Select 2)
A. Application performance
B. Data transfer speed over the WAN
C. Data transfer speed over the LAN
D. Quality of service
E. WORM stability
F. Prototyping
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
What is the 100-105 pdf datastore size?
A. The amount of disk space available for Scalable Data Referencing (SDR) use
B. The amount of disk space available for optimization use
C. The amount of memory available for optimization use
D. The amount of memory available for SDR use
E. The amount of CPU available for optimization use
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What do you configure to control optimization on 100-105 a Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. In-path rules
B. Optimization rules
C. Load balancing rules
D. Peering rules
E. TCP rules
F. Acceleration policies
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Can you manage 100-105 your Virtual Steelhead appliance from a Central Management Console?
A. Yes, this is possible
B. Only on out-of-path deployments
C. Only on in-path deployments
D. There is a dedicated management device for Virtual Steelhead appliances
E. You can only manage your Virtual Steelhead appliances using a virtualized console
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the packaging distribution format for the 100-105 vce Virtual Steelhead appliance?
A. Open Virtual Appliance
B. Open Virtual Image
C. Open Virtual Release
D. Open Virtual Source
E. Open Virtual Package
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How can I obtain Virtual Steelhead appliance license keys?
A. Using the Riverbed public support site
B. Contacting VMware
C. Virtual Steelhead appliance license keys are included in the install package
D. Base licenses are not required
E. Only SSL licenses are not included
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
With branch warming enabled, new data transferred between the 100-105 dumps Steelhead Mobile client and a server will be populated into: (Select 3)
A. The Steelhead Mobile client datastore
B. The local office Steelhead appliance datastore
C. The server-side Steelhead appliance datastore
D. Datastore will not be populated
E. The Steelhead Mobile Controller datastore
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
A Steelhead appliance can be 100-105 configured to automatically send an email to a preconfigured email address in the event of a failure. Where is this done? (Select 3)
A. GUI
B. CLI
C. RADIUS/TACACS+
D. Can be done via the Central Management Console
E. DNS server
Correct Answer: ABD

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70-410

QUESTION 1
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is a DHCP server that is configured to have a scope
named Scope1. Server2 is configured to 70-410 vce obtain an IP address automatically.
In Scope1, you create a reservation named Res_Server2 for Server2. A technician replaces the network adapter on Server2. You need to ensure that Server2 can
obtain the same IP address.
What should you modify on Server1?
A. The Advanced settings of Res_Server2
B. The MAC address of Res Server2
C. The Network Access Protection Settings of Scope1
D. The Name Protection settings of Scope1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains the user accounts and the computer accounts for laptops and desktop computers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. You need to ensure that the configuration settings in GP1 are applied 70-410 only to the laptops in OU1. The solution must ensure that GP1 is applied automatically to new laptops that are added to OU1. What should you do?
A. Modify the GPO Status of GP1.
B. Configure the WMI Filter of GP1.
C. Modify the security settings of GP1.
D. Modify the security settings of OU1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named 70-410 exam AllComputers.
Client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory.
What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of AllComputers
B. The Security settings of GP1
C. The WMI filter for GP1
D. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 70-410 pdf two servers named Server1 and Server2.
Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 runs Windows Server 2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1) and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You need to manage DHCP on Server2 by using the DHCP console on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. From Windows Firewall with Advanced Security on Server2, create an inbound rule.
B. From Internet Explorer on Server2, download and install Windows Management Framework 3.0.
C. From Server Manager on Server1, install a feature.
D. From Windows PowerShell on Server2, run Enable PSRemoting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active 70-410 Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named HVServer1. HVServer1 runs Windows
Server 2012 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. HVServer1 hosts 10 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines connect to a virtual switch named Switch1.
Switch1 is configured as a private network. All of the virtual machines have the DHCP guard and the router guard settings enabled. You install the DHCP server
role on a virtual machine named Server 1. You authorize Server1 as a DHCP server in contoso.com. You create an IP scope.
You discover 70-410 that the virtual machines connected to Switch1 do not receive IP settings from Server1. You need to ensure that the virtual machines can use
Server1 as a DHCP server.
What should you do?
A. Enable MAC address spoofing on Server1.
B. Disable the DHCP guard on all of the virtual machines that are DHCP clients.
C. Disable the DHCP guard on Server1.
D. Enable single-root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV) on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-410.aspx

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70-480

QUESTION 1
You are developing a Windows Store app.
Users must be able to initiate searches by using 70-480 the Search charm. The app must display the search text in a DIV element named statusMessage.
You need to add code to meet this requirement.
Which code segment should you add?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are developing a Windows Store app. The app includes a handler for the datarequested event. A 70-480 portion of the code for the event handler is shown in the following code segment:
The app must meet the 70-480 vce following requirements:
The app must share an order tracking link with target apps.
The app must share URI-type data only.
You need to ensure that the app meets the requirements.
Which code segment should you insert at line 05?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are developing two Windows Store apps 70-480 named PhotoApp and PictureAlbum. The apps must meet the following requirements:
PhotoApp must have access to images on the local computer on which PhotoApp is running.
PictureAlbum must be able to access the images from PhotoApp.
You need to 70-480 dumps configure the deployment package settings for both apps to ensure that the requirements are met.
What should you do?
A.Add the Pictures Library setting to the list of declarations for PhotoApp, and add the Share Target setting to the list of capabilities for PictureAlbum.
B.Add the Share Target setting to the list of declarations for PictureAlbum, and add the Pictures Library setting to the list of capabilities for PhotoApp.
C.Add the Pictures Library setting to the list of capabilities for PictureAlbum, and add the Share Target setting to the list of declarations for PictureAlbum.
D.Add the URI of PhotoApp to the Content URIs list for PictureAlbum, and add the URI of PictureAlbum to the Content URIs list for PhotoApp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are planning to deploy a Windows Store app to a large number of users. The size of the app is approximately 5 GB.
You need to package the app to 70-480 prepare it for deployment to the Windows Store.
How many packages should you use?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are developing a 70-480 pdf Windows Store app by using HTML5. The app will be optimized for accessibility.
The app must meet the following accessibility requirements:
Provide support for navigating all user interface elements.
Provide support for invoking default functionality on the user interface.
Provide support for use of a computer keyboard.
You need to ensure that the app meets the 70-480 accessibility requirements.
Which actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the tabIndex attribute for interactive elements. Dynamically manage the tabIndex attribute for composite elements.
B. Set the aria-live attribute of user interface elements to polite for important content that changes dynamically.
C. Ensure that visible text has a minimum luminosity contrast ratio of 1:1 against the background.
D. Implement event handlers for invoking default functionality.
Correct Answer: AB

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300-070

The 300-070 on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The 300-070 on the device includes the 300-070 dumps partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?
A. The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B. Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C. If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D. The line and device CSS will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E. The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.
Correct Answer: E

Which two statements about Cisco 300-070 VCE Addressing Zones are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can be local to the Cisco VCS or can be remote.
B. A zone is a collection of endpoints that share the same dialing behavior and bandwidth settings.
C. They consist of traversal and nontraversal zones.
D. They can only be local.
E. They consist of subzones such as DNS zones.
Correct Answer: AB

What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces
Correct Answer: BD

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